I was browsing the results of the philpapers survey this weekend and was struck by some geographical differences on philosophical issues. Consider the following:
| Answer | Corrrelation coefficient | |||||||||||||||||
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Proper names:Fregean | 0.146 | |||||||||||||||||
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| Normative ethics:consequentialism | 0.132 | |||||||||||||||||
Response pairs: 800 p-value: < 0.001
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| Knowledge claims:invariantism | 0.105 | |||||||||||||||||
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Aside from simply being interesting (to my eyes, at least), they seem to me to raise some serious questions. For instance, when I hear people say that Kripke showed that proper names are rigid designators, I'm puzzled. For, apparently, very few Europeans seem to share those intuitions (I don't share the Kripkean intuitions, either. Well, I sort of do. I think proper names can be used to refer however we want them to — something through descriptions, sometimes not).
It is hard to not (for me, at least) not to get a sinking feeling of sorts. In each geographical location, I imagine philosophers touting the "progress" they have made — progress firmly in favor of consequentialism in Australasia…but against consequentialism outside Australasia. The sinking feeling is this. How can we be sure that whatever progress "we" may think we are making (where "we" is simply a group of philosophers in a given territory) is genuine progress, as opposed to a kind intuition-groupthink (with some small group of people "having an intuition for P" in one geographic territory, and P becoming the "gold-standard" for everyone else in that territory, but people in another geographic territory having the intuition ~P and ~P becoming "progress" in that territory). I say this because, as I have explained recently, this is what I felt when I did philosophy of language. When I studied Kripke in grad school, I literally didn't have any of the dominant intuitions (about the Godel case, etc.). And so I just left to do something else.
Shouldn't geographical differences worry us in broadly this way? Don't they give the impression that different intuitions can simply "take hold" in a given population, simply driving philosophy is disparate directions (and away from truth) on the basis of sociological phenomena (i.e. who in positions of philosophical power have the relevant intuitions)? Finally, might the variance between different geographical locations suggest a better way of doing philosophy — namely, not engaging in "intuition mongering", but rather being senstitive to the very fact that not all have the same intuitions (something which, in turn, might be philosophically valuable — as I think is the case with proper names–>namely, that they do not have one meaning, but many possible meanings)?
These are just some thoughts I've been entertaining. I'm curious to hear what you all think.
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