In our most recent "how can we help you?" thread, a reader asks:
Is it possible, or generally considered acceptable, to reply to a referee's comments if (i) the referee recommended rejection, (ii) the referee's recommendation was based on an obvious misinterpretation or factual error, and (iii) the journal acted on the referee's recommendation?
Background: I submitted a manuscript responding to author A, and a referee claimed that I had attributed a view to A that A does not hold. But A does hold the relevant view, and my statement of A's view is provably equivalent to A's. (Indeed, my statement of A's view is barely even paraphrased.) It was clear to me that the referee had not read the relevant passages of A's work before writing their report, even though I identified these passages for them in a footnote. I am concerned that the same referee will be invited by other journals to review my manuscript and will once again recommend rejection if they are not made aware of this error.
Good question. I seem to recall hearing of one example of someone who raised an objection like this to an editor and was able to get the editor to reconsider the rejection and send out the paper to another reviewer. But, I'm not sure whether it's generally advisable to do something like this, and I've never tried to do it myself.
What do readers think? Do any readers with relevant experience, either as authors or as editors, have any helpful insights to share?
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