Like the “proving
too much” charge, philosophers tend to level the “begging the question”
charge too hastily. I just had a paper—in which I argue that p is false (where
p is a commonly held view in field F)—rejected on the grounds that my argument
against p begs the question.
Strictly speaking, an argument begs the
question only if it is a circular argument and the circle is vicious. That is:
p
=> p
This is a viciously circular argument because
the conclusion (= p) is assumed as a premise.
Now, if my argument were something like
this:
~p => ~p
then it would have been viciously
circular. But my argument actually goes like this:
(q -> ~p) & q => ~p
It just so happens, however, that q is a
proposition that my opponent cannot accept. Does that make my argument viciously
circular? I
don’t think so. I suppose that is what Putnam
had in mind when he said that “one
philosopher’s modus ponens is another philosopher’s modus tollens.”
What do you think, my fellow pupae?
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